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Why did the Arab countries that historically participated in the slave trade not have the phenomenon of "blackening"?

author:I'll see you in hot spots

The slave trade began in the 15th century and refers specifically to the fact that European colonists sold black Africans to the Americas as slaves, and a large number of black Africans came to the Americas. Because it passes through the three continents of Europe, Africa and the United States, the route is triangular, so it is also called triangular trade.

European slave traders set out from their own countries to load salt, cloth, rum, etc., and returned from Africa in exchange for slaves, tobacco, and rice. Between west Europe, near the Gulf of Guinea in Africa, and the West Indies of the Americas, the route roughly forms a triangular shape, a process that lasted for 400 years.

Modern Western colonial rule first began in Africa, Portugal and Spain were the first countries to carry out colonization activities, and the greedy European colonists took a large number of black Africans with tropical cultivation techniques and adaptability to tropical labor as slave hunters.

In the vast strip from the mouth of the Senegal River to the mouth of the Congo River, one slave ship after another of European colonial powers is moored, and the black bow is like an open blood basin, waiting to devour human flesh.

According to statistics, in the course of 400 years of slavery, black Africans were killed by tens of millions of black tribes. Santo Domingo imported 2.8 million slaves in the first half of the 18th century, and by 1976 only more than 65,000 remained, an average of more than 40,000 deaths per year.

According to the calculation method of sacrificing at least 10 or so black Africans for every slave shipped to the Americas, the slave trade cost Africa 100 million people, a figure equivalent to the total population of Africa in 1980.

Why did the Arab countries that historically participated in the slave trade not have the phenomenon of "blackening"?

When slave traders arrived in Africa, they exchanged low-value goods with black tribal chiefs for young, strong blacks. The black tribes and their tribal leaders, who were still in a state of barbarism, were prodded by the slave traders and threatened and lured, and the blacks were acquired by the slave traders like commodities.

It can be seen from this that the black slave trade is actually black people themselves selling themselves, and it is impossible for white colonists who are not familiar with the land to arrest black people themselves, so the trade method they adopt is to directly find several powerful local tribes, and then pay them money to arrest black people from other tribes, and then ship these black people to Europe and the United States to sell and make money.

On the other hand, wars between African tribes occurred from time to time, and wars produced a large number of prisoners of war, and slave traders could buy these prisoners of war through trade and thus obtain this part of the slaves.

Although the historical slave trade has prompted Western countries to quickly complete the primitive accumulation of capital, but everything has reincarnation and karma, with the abolition of slavery, the descendants of these huge numbers of black slaves have now become the citizens of their countries, enjoying the same rights and welfare as the local people, and the resulting "blackening" problem has also caused headaches in these countries.

At present, there are 3 countries with the most serious blackening, and it is possible to take the lead in "blackening" in the world in the future. 1. Brazil. Brazil in South America has a population of 200 million, more than 80 million blacks, of which purebred blacks account for 7%, mixed blacks account for 38%, the two combined black blood accounted for more than 45%, almost half of Brazil is black.

2. United States. There are 50 million blacks in the United States, 40 million mixed blacks, and the total number of blacks exceeds 90 million, accounting for almost 1/3 of the total population of the United States. At the beginning of the 19th century, Americans also realized that it did not seem good to have more black people, so they once planned a special place in Africa to transport a large number of black people back. However, this practice immediately caused dissatisfaction among the blacks and set off a riot. In the end, the United States Government was forced to abandon this plan.

Why did the Arab countries that historically participated in the slave trade not have the phenomenon of "blackening"?

3. France. France has a total population of 66 million, of which 8 million are black, accounting for 15%, and there are 5 million blacks living in Paris. Coupled with the high black fertility rate, at present, 6 out of every 10 babies born in France are black, and if this development continues, France will be blackened sooner or later.

However, people will find that there is a very strange phenomenon in the history of the black slave trade, that is, the countries in the Middle East that are also involved in the black slave trade can hardly see the "blackening" situation, so what is the reason for this result?

In fact, in history, the large number of black slaves in history was not only sold by european and American whites, but also by Arabs. Moreover, the history of the slave trade did not begin in the colonial era, and the Arab Empire was the first country to carry out organized and large-scale abduction and trafficking of black slaves. Due to the geographical proximity of the Middle East to Africa, the Arabs began their slave trade as early as the 6th century AD, during the Arab Empire.

Known as the Great Eclipse in continental history books, the Arab Empire at its peak spanned across West Asia and North Africa, covering an area of 13.4 million square kilometers, making it the longest east-west span in world history. Due to its large geographical span, the Arab Empire played an important role in the trade between The East and the West at that time.

In the Tang Dynasty, a large number of Arab merchants gathered in Chang'an, and the "Kunlun Nu" who appeared in this period were black slaves who were abducted and sold by Arab countries and flowed into Tang Dynasty society as "tribute people" or slaves.

The arab abduction of blacks came with the expansion of the Arab Empire into North Africa. According to statistics, during the rule of the Arab Empire, about 13 million black slaves were plundered and sold, which is basically the same as the number of black slaves sold by European and American colonists.

Why did the Arab countries that historically participated in the slave trade not have the phenomenon of "blackening"?

However, it is surprising that the same long-term slave trade, which is also very different from the phenomenon of "blackening" that has occurred in Europe, America and South America, is that there are not many black people in the Arab countries of the Middle East. It is reasonable to say that the Arab countries that also traded black slaves in large numbers as the European and American colonists should also have a large number of black people at home. So, why?

If you look back at history, there are two reasons why there are few black people in Arab countries:

The Arabs castrated male slaves

The Arab Empire immediately castrated the male slaves captured and then sent them to the slave market for sale. The reason for this is that the Arab Empire is located between West Asia and North Africa, close to Black Africa, and does not need to go through several months of long-distance sea freight to reach the destination like the colonists of European and American countries, and the mortality rate of black slaves during transportation is higher, so the cost of obtaining black slaves is lower.

Because black slaves were cheap, the Arabs did not need to rely on the method of "using black slaves to reproduce themselves" to reduce the cost of black slaves, as the white slave owners in Europe and the United States did. In the eyes of the Arabs, having blacks raise offspring is not only time-consuming, laborious, but also a waste of money. All they needed was black labor, and these black slaves could be easily obtained by plunder.

Why did the Arab countries that historically participated in the slave trade not have the phenomenon of "blackening"?

So the Arabs believed that there was no need for blacks to raise their offspring. In addition, the black slaves plundered by the Arabs not only had to perform heavy manual labor, but also some would enter the sultan's harem and become slaves, and the sultan's harem at that time was full of concubines taken by Arabs from all over the world, so these black slaves had to be castrated, just in case.

Second, adopt the law of survival of the fittest and select a strong labor force from it

Because the cost of obtaining black slaves by the Arabs was very low, they treated blacks with extreme cruelty, sometimes arbitrarily abusing them, and used this method to naturally eliminate those who were weaker blacks. This cruel persecution was bound to be met with black resistance, but the result of the revolt was the massacre of large numbers of blacks as a whole.

In the 9th century, a famous black uprising broke out in West Asia, a group of 15,000 black slaves, mostly from East Africa, who were trafficked to the Basra area of southern Iraq to develop saline wastelands for the Arab nobility and extract salt.

Due to the hot weather and the abuse, the unbearable black slaves launched an uprising, but in the end the uprising failed, and all the black people who participated in the uprising were slaughtered as a whole. It is not surprising that such arbitrary massacres, during the reign of the Arab Empire at that time, were commonplace.

Why did the Arab countries that historically participated in the slave trade not have the phenomenon of "blackening"?

The reason why the European and American colonists did not castrate the black slaves was not that they were more civilized and benevolent, and if you look at the history of the American colonists who almost slaughtered the Indians in the United States in order to seize the land of the Indians, we know that they did not regard the black slaves and Indians as human beings at all.

The reason why European and American slave owners did not castrate black slaves was because they needed to go through long-distance shipping to obtain black slaves, which was more expensive, while European and American countries needed a lot of labor. They needed these blacks to continue to reproduce, because the descendants of black slaves were still slaves, so that they could obtain a steady stream of labor.

epilogue

In short, the historical slave trade arose under specific historical conditions, provided a large amount of cheap labor for the rising Arab Empire, and at the same time made a great contribution to the completion of the primitive accumulation of European and American countries. The consequences of "blackening" that have been left behind can only be tasted by these colonial powers themselves.

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